2022年全国新高考一卷英语试题及答案

　　2022 年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试(新高考全国Ⅰ卷)

　　英语

　　本试卷共 10 页，满分 120 分。考试用时 120 分钟。

　　注意事项：1. 答卷前，考生务必用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔将自己的姓名、考生

　　号、考场号和座位号填写在答题卡上。用 2B 铅笔将试卷类型(A)填涂在答题

　　卡相应位置上。将条形码横贴在答题卡右上角“条形码粘贴处”。因笔试不考听

　　力，选择题从第二部分的“阅读”开始，试题序号从“21”开始。

　　2. 作答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用 2B 铅笔把答题卡上对应题目选项的

　　答案信息点涂黑;如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案，答案不能答

　　在试卷上。

　　3. 非选择题必须用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔作答，答案必须写在答题卡各题目指

　　定区域内相应位置上;如需改动，先划掉原来的答案，然后再写上新的答案;

　　不准使用铅笔和涂改液，不按以上要求作答的答案无效。

　　4. 考生必须保持答题卡的整洁：考试结束后，将试卷和答题卡一并交回。

　　第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分 50 分)

　　第一节(共 15 小题;每小题 2.5 分，满分 37.5 分)

　　阅读下列短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。

　　A

　　Grading Policies for Introduction to Literature

　　Grading Scale

　　90-100, A; 80-89, B; 70-79, C; 60-69, D; Below 60, E.

　　Essays(60%)

　　Your four major essays will combine to form the main part of the grade for this course: Essay

　　1 =10%; Essay 2=15%; Essay 3=15%; Essay 4=20%

　　Group Assignments(30%)

　　Students will work in groups to complete four assignments(作业)during the course. All the

　　assignments will be submitted by the assigned date through Blackboard, our online learning and

　　course management system.

　　Daily Work/In-Class Writings and Tests/Group Work/Homework(10%)

　　Class activities will vary from day to day, but students must be ready to complete short in-class

　　writings or tests drawn directly from assigned readings or notes from the previous class'

　　lecture/discussion, so it is important to take careful notes during class. Additionally, from time to

　　time I will assign group work to be completed in class or short assignments to be completed at home,

　　both of which will be graded.

　　Late Work

　　An essay not submitted in class on the due date will lose a letter grade for each class period it

　　is late. If it is not turned in by the 4th day after the due date, it will earn a zero. Daily assignments

　　not completed during class will get a zero. Short writings missed as a result of an excused absence

　　will be accepted.

　　21. Where is this text probably taken from?

　　A. A textbook.

　　B. An exam paper.

　　C. A course plan.

　　D. An academic article.

　　22. How many parts is a student's final grade made up of?

　　A. Two.

　　B. Three.

　　C. Four.

　　D. Five.

　　23. What will happen if you submit an essay one week after the due date?

　　A. You will receive a zero.

　　B. You will lose a letter grade.

　　C. You will be given a test.

　　D. You will have to rewrite it.

　　B

　　Like most of us, I try to be mindful of food that goes to waste. The arugula(芝麻菜)was to

　　make a nice green salad, rounding out a roast chicken dinner. But I ended up working late. Then

　　friends called with a dinner invitation. I stuck the chicken in the freezer. But as days passed, the

　　arugula went bad. Even worse, I had unthinkingly bought way too much; I could have made six

　　salads with what I threw out.

　　In a world where nearly 800 million people a year go hungry, "food waste goes against the

　　moral grain," as Elizabeth Royte writes in this month's cover story. It's jaw-dropping how much

　　perfectly good food is thrown away—from “ugly"(but quite eatable)vegetables rejected by

　　grocers to large amounts of uneaten dishes thrown into restaurant garbage cans.

　　Producing food that no one eats wastes the water, fuel, and other resources used to grow it.

　　That makes food waste an environmental problem. In fact, Royte writes, "if food waste were a

　　country, it would be the third largest producer of greenhouse gases in the world."

　　If that's hard to understand, let's keep it as simple as the arugula at the back of my refrigerator.

　　Mike Curtin sees my arugula story all the time — but for him, it's more like 12 bones of donated

　　strawberries nearing their last days. Curtin is CEO of DC Central Kitchen in Washington, D.C.,

　　which recovers food and turns it into healthy meals. Last year it recovered more than 807,500

　　pounds of food by taking donations and collecting blemished(有瑕疵的)produce that otherwise

　　would have rotted in fields. And the strawberries? Volunteers will wash, cut, and freeze or dry them

　　for use in meals down the road.

　　Such methods seem obvious, yet so often we just don't think. "Everyone can play a part in

　　reducing waste, whether by not purchasing more food than necessary in your weekly shopping or

　　by asking restaurants to not include the side dish you won't eat," Curtin says.

　　24. What does the author want to show by telling the arugula story?

　　A. We pay little attention to food waste.

　　B. We waste food unintentionally at times.

　　C. We waste more vegetables than meat.

　　D. We have good reasons for wasting food.

　　25. What is a consequence of food waste according to the test?

　　A. Moral decline.

　　B. Environmental harm.

　　C. Energy shortage.

　　D. Worldwide starvation.

　　26. What does Curtin's company do?

　　A. It produces kitchen equipment.

　　B. It turns rotten arugula into clean fuel.

　　C. It helps local farmers grow fruits

　　D. It makes meals out of unwanted food.

　　27. What does Curtin suggest people do?

　　A. Buy only what is needed.

　　B. Reduce food consumption.

　　C. Go shopping once a week.

　　D. Eat in restaurants less often.

　　C

　　The elderly residents(居民)in care homes in London are being given hens to look after to

　　stop them feeling lonely.

　　The project was dreamed up by a local charity(慈善组织)to reduce loneliness and improve

　　elderly people's wellbeing, It is also being used to help patients suffering dementia, a serious illness

　　of the mind. Staff in care homes have reported a reduction in the use of medicine where hens are inuse.

　　Among those taking part in the project is 80-year-old Ruth Xavier. She said: “I used to keep

　　hens when I was younger and had to prepare their breakfast each morning before I went to school.

　　"I like the project a lot. I am down there in my wheelchair in the morning letting the hens out

　　and down there again at night to see they've gone to bed.

　　"It's good to have a different focus. People have been bringing their children in to see the hens

　　and residents come and sit outside to watch them. I'm enjoying the creative activities, and it feels

　　great to have done something useful."

　　There are now 700 elderly people looking after hens in 20 care homes in the North East, and

　　the charity has been given financial support to roll it out countrywide.

　　Wendy Wilson, extra care manager at 60 Penfold Street, one of the first to embark on the

　　project, said: "Residents really welcome the idea of the project and the creative sessions. We are

　　looking forward to the benefits and fun the project can bring to people here."

　　Lynn Lewis, director of Notting Hill Pathways, said: "We are happy to be taking part in the

　　project. It will really help connect our residents through a shared interest and creative activities."

　　28. What is the purpose of the project?

　　A. To ensure harmony in care homes.

　　B. To provide part-time jobs for the aged.

　　C. To raise money for medical research.

　　D. To promote the elderly people's welfare.

　　29. How has the project affected Ruth Xavier?

　　A. She has learned new life skills.

　　B. She has gained a sense of achievement.

　　C. She has recovered her memory.

　　D. She has developed a strong personality.

　　30. What do the underlined words "embark on" mean in paragraph 7?

　　A. Improve.

　　B. Oppose.

　　C. Begin.

　　D. Evaluate.

　　31. What can we learn about the project from the last two paragraphs?

　　A. It is well received.

　　B. It needs to be more creative.

　　C. It is highly profitable.

　　D. It takes ages to see the results.

　　D

　　Human speech contains more than 2,000 different sounds, from the common "m" and "a" to

　　the rare clicks of some southern African languages. But why are certain sounds more common than

　　others? A ground-breaking, five-year study shows that diet-related changes in human bite led to

　　new speech sounds that are now found in half the world's languages.

　　More than 30 years ago, the scholar Charles Hockett noted that speech sounds called

　　labiodentals, such as "f" and "v", were more common in the languages of societies that ate softer

　　foods. Now a team of researchers led by Damián Blasi at the University of Zurich, Switzerland, has

　　found how and why this trend arose.

　　They discovered that the upper and lower front teeth of ancient human adults were aligned(对

　　齐), making it hard to produce labiodentals, which are formed by touching the lower lip to the

　　upper teeth. Later, our jaws changed to an overbite structure(结构), making it easier to produce

　　such sounds.

　　The team showed that this change in bite was connected with the development of agriculture

　　in the Neolithic period. Food became easier to chew at this point. The jawbone didn't have to do as

　　much work and so didn't grow to be so large.

　　Analyses of a language database also confirmed that there was a global change in the sound of

　　world languages after the Neolithic age, with the use of "f" and "v" increasing remarkably during

　　the last few thousand years. These sounds are still not found in the languages of many hunter

　　gatherer people today.

　　This research overturns the popular view that all human speech sounds were present whenhuman beings evolved around 300,000 years ago. "The set of speech sounds we use has not

　　necessarily remained stable since the appearance of human beings, but rather the huge variety of

　　speech sounds that we find today is the product of a complex interplay of things like biological

　　change and cultural evolution," said Steven Moran, a member of the research team.

　　32. Which aspect of the human speech sound does Damián Blasi's research focus on?

　　A. Its variety.

　　B. Its distribution.

　　C. Its quantity.

　　D. Its development.

　　33. Why was it difficult for ancient human adults to produce labiodentals?

　　A. They had fewer upper teeth than lower teeth.

　　B. They could not open and close their lips easily.

　　C. Their jaws were not conveniently structured.

　　D. Their lower front teeth were not large enough.

　　34. What is paragraph 5 mainly about?

　　A. Supporting evidence for the research results.

　　B. Potential application of the research findings.

　　C. A further explanation of the research methods.

　　D. A reasonable doubt about the research process.

　　35. What does Steven Moran say about the set of human speech sounds?

　　A. It is key to effective communication.

　　B. It contributes much to cultural diversity.

　　C. It is a complex and dynamic system.

　　D. It drives the evolution of human beings.

　　第二节(共 5 小题;每小题 2.5 分，满分 12.5 分)

　　阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余

　　选项。

　　Fitness Magazine recently ran an article titled "Five Reasons to Thank Your Workout Partner."

　　One reason was: "You'll actually show up if you know someone is waiting for you at the gym,"

　　while another read: " 36 " With a workout partner, you will increase your training effort as

　　there is a subtle(微妙)competition.

　　So, how do you find a workout partner?

　　First of all, decide what you want from that person. 37 Or do you just want to be physically

　　fit, able to move with strength and flexibility? Think about the exercises you would like to do with

　　your workout partner.

　　You might think about posting what you are looking for on social media, but it probably won't

　　result in a useful response. 38 If you plan on working out in a gym, that person must belong

　　to the same gym.

　　My partner posted her request on the notice board of a local park. Her notice included what

　　kind of training she wanted to do, how many days a week and how many hours she wanted to spend

　　on each session, and her age. It also listed her favorite sports and activities, and provided her phone

　　number. 39

　　You and your partner will probably have different skills. 40 Over time, both of you will

　　benefit — your partner will be able to lift more weights and you will become more physically fit.

　　The core(核心)of your relationship is that you will always be there to help each other.

　　A. Your first meeting may be a little awkward.

　　B. A workout partner usually needs to live close by.

　　C. You'll work harder if you train with someone else.

　　D. Do you want to be a better athlete in your favorite sport?

　　E. How can you write a good "seeking training partner" notice?

　　F. Just accept your differences and learn to work with each other.

　　G. Any notice for a training partner should include such information.第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分 30 分)

　　第一节(共 15 小题;每小题 1 分，满分 15 分)

　　阅读下面短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。

　　My husband, our children and I have had wonderful camping experiences over the past ten

　　years.

　　Some of our 41 are funny, especially from the early years when our children were little.

　　Once, we 42 along Chalk Creek. I was 43 that our 15-month-old boy would fall into

　　the creek(小溪). I tied a rope around his waist to keep him near to our spot. That lasted about

　　ten minutes. He was 44 , and his crying let the whole campground know it. So 45 tying

　　him up, I just kept a close eye on him. It 46 — he didn't end up in the creek. My three-year

　　old, however, did.

　　Another time, we rented a boat in Vallecito Lake. The sky was clear when we 47 , but

　　storms move in fast in the mountains, and this one quickly 48 our peaceful morning trip. The

　　49 picked up and thunder rolled. My husband stopped fishing to 50 the motor. Nothing.

　　He tried again. No 51 . We were stuck in the middle of the lake with a dead motor. As we all

　　sat there 52 , a fisherman pulled up, threw us a rope and towed(拖)us back. We were 53

　　.

　　Now, every year when my husband pulls our camper out of the garage, we are filled with a

　　sense of 54 , wondering what camping fun and 55 we will experience next.

　　41. A. ideas B. jokes C. memories D. discoveries

　　42. A. camped B. drove C. walked D. cycled

　　43. A. annoyed B. surprised C. disappointed D. worried

　　44. A. unhurt B. unfortunate C. uncomfortable D. unafraid

　　45. A. due to B. instead of C. apart from D. as for

　　46. A. worked B. happened C. mattered D. changed

　　47. A. signed up B. calmed down C. checked out D. headed off

　　48. A. arranged B. interrupted C. completed D. recorded

　　49. A. wind B. noise C. temperature D. speed

　　50. A. find B. hide C. start D. fix

　　51. A. luck B. answer C. wonder D. signal

　　52. A. patiently B. tirelessly C. doubtfully D. helplessly

　　53. A. sorry B. brave C. safe D. right

　　54. A. relief B. duty C. pride D. excitement

　　55. A. failureB. adventure C. performance D. conflict

　　第二节(共 10 小题; 每小题 1.5 分，满分 15 分)

　　阅读下面短文，在空白处填入 1 个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。

　　The Chinese government recently finalized a plan to set up a Giant Panda National Park(GPNP). 56 (cover)an area about three times 57 size of Yellowstone National Park, the GPNP will be one of the first national parks in the country. The plan will extend protection to a significant number of areas that 58 (be) previously unprotected, bringing many of the existing protected areas for giant pandas under one authority 59 (increase)effectiveness and reduce inconsistencies in management.

　　After a three-year pilot period, the GPNP will be officially set up next year. The GPNP 60 (design) to reflect the guiding principle of "protecting the authenticity and integrity(完整性)of natural ecosystems, preserving biological diversity, protecting ecological buffer zones, 61leaving behind precious natural assets(资产)for future generations". The GPNP's main goal is toimprove connectivity between separate 62 (population)and homes of giant pandas, and　63 (eventual)achieve a desired level of population in the wild.

　　Giant pandas also serve 64 an umbrella species(物种), bringing protection to a host of plants and animals in the southwestern and northwestern parts of China. The GPNP is intended to provide stronger protection for all the species 65 live within the Giant Panda Range and significantly improve the health of the ecosystem in the area.

　　第四部分 写作(共两节，满分 40 分)

　　第一节(满分 15 分)

　　假定你是校广播站英语节目“Talk and Talk”的负责人李华，请给外教 Caroline 写邮件

　　邀请她做一次访谈。内容包括：

　　1. 节目介绍;

　　2. 访谈的时间和话题。

　　注意：

　　1. 写作词数应为 80 左右;

　　2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。

　　Dear Caroline,

                                                                              Yours sincerely,

　　                                                                                   Li Hua

　　第二节(满分 25 分)

　　阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。

　　It was the day of the big cross-country run. Students from seven different primary schools in  and around the small town were warming up and walking the route(路线)through thick evergreen forest.

　　I looked around and finally spotted David, who was standing by himself off to the side by a fence. He was small for ten years old. His usual big toothy smile was absent today. I walked over and asked him why he wasn't with the other children. He hesitated and then said he had decided not to run.

　　What was wrong? He had worked so hard for this event!

　　I quickly searched the crowd for the school's coach and asked him what had happened. "I was afraid that kids from other schools would laugh at him," he explained uncomfortably. "I gave him 　the choice to run or not, and let him decide."

　　I bit back my frustration(懊恼). I knew the coach meant well — he thought he was doing the right thing. After making sure that David could run if he wanted, I turned to find him coming towards me, his small body rocking from side to side as he swung his feet forward.

　　David had a brain disease which prevented him from walking or running like other children,but at school his classmates thought of him as a regular kid. He always participated to the best of his ability in whatever they were doing. That was why none of the children thought it unusual that David had decided to join the cross-country team. It just took him longer — that’s all. David had　not missed a single practice, and although he always finished his run long after the other children,he did always finish. As a special education teacher at the school, I was familiar with the challenges David faced and was proud of his strong determination.

注意：

　　1. 续写词数应为 150 左右;

　　2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答.

　　We sat down next to each other, but David wouldn't look at me.

　　I watched as David moved up to the starting line with the other runners.

　　2022 年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试(新高考全国Ⅰ卷)

　　英语

　　参考答案

　　本试卷共 10 页，满分 120 分。考试用时 120 分钟。

　　注意事项：1. 答卷前，考生务必用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔将自己的姓名、考生

　　号、考场号和座位号填写在答题卡上。用 2B 铅笔将试卷类型(A)填涂在答题卡

　　相应位置上。将条形码横贴在答题卡右上角“条形码粘贴处”。因笔试不考听力，

　　选择题从第二部分的“阅读”开始，试题序号从“21”开始。

　　2. 作答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用 2B 铅笔把答题卡上对应题目选项的

　　答案信息点涂黑;如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案，答案不能答在

　　试卷上。

　　3. 非选择题必须用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔作答，答案必须写在答题卡各题目指

　　定区域内相应位置上;如高改动，先划掉原来的答案，然后再写上新的答案;不

　　准使用铅笔和涂改液，不按以上要求作答的答案无效。

　　4. 考生必须保持答题卡的整洁：考试结束后，将试卷和符题卡一并交回。

　　第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分 50 分)

　　第一节(共 15 小题：每小题 2.5 分，满分 37.5 分)

　　1. C 2. B 3. A 4. B 5. B 6. D 7. A 8. D 9. B 10. C 11. A 12.D 13. C 14. A 15. C

　　第二节(共 5 小题：每小题 2.5 分，满分 12.5 分)

　　16. C 17. D 18. B 19. G 20. F

　　第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分 30 分)

　　第一节(共 15 小题; 每小题 1 分，满分 15 分)

　　21. C 22. A 23. D 24. C　25. B 26. A 27. D 28. B 29. A 30. C 31. A32. D 33. C 34. D 35. B

　　第二节(共 10 小题; 每小题 1.5 分，满分 15 分)

　　36. Covering

　　37. the

　　38. were

　　39. to increase

　　40. is designed

　　41. and

　　42. populations

　　43. eventually

　　44. as

　　45. that

　　第四部分 写作(共两节，满分 40 分)

　　第一节(满分 15 分)

　　【答案】Dear Caroline,

　　This is my first time that I have invited you to attend our program —Talk and Talk. It is ten 　years since Talk and Talk was established. This is an amazing program where you can share your ideas with students. Now, when having trouble in learning English well, plenty of students urge to know how to deal with it. As our distinguished foreign language teacher, your aid can help us a lot.

　　If you are available on this Sunday, I together with the whole Talk and Talk staff am waiting for your coming. I’d appreciate it if you take my invitation into consideration.

　　Yours,

　　Li Hua

　　第二节(满分 25 分)

　　47. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。

　　【答案】We sat down next to each other, but David wouldn’t look at me. I said gently and quietly,

　　“No one can change your mind, except yourself. If you desire to challenge yourself, there is nothingto do with others’ thoughts.” He sat still with a deep breath. “You have a full preparation before this event, which is the most important reason why you show up here”, I added with a sincere tone.

　　Hearing my words, David turned to me tremblingly with tears spilling out of his eyes and expressed he had made a firm determination to finish the cross-country run. His coach heard what David said and gave me a look—the kind that was more determined than anyone else’s.

　　I watched as David moved up to the starting line with the other runners. The race started. It seemed that the runway was extremely long for young children, not to mention a child with a heart　disease. David insisted on running as if he had forgotten all his weaknesses, though he was tripped over within the a few kilometers. It didn’t take long before he picked himself up again and continued his mission. Classmates all appeared on the racing track, cheering for him. “Come on!

　　You can make it! We are proud of you!” they shouted enthusiastically. To everyone’s joy, he reached the final line and ranked the 20th. It was no more important whether he won the first place or not. It was his brave heart and strong faith that could make something unusual happen finally.

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